STNA Practice Test

Try our free STNA practice test. You will need to pass the STNA test in order to work as a State Tested Nurse Aide in Ohio. Our STNA practice test features 79 questions that are similar to those on the actual test. All of the key topics are covered, and detailed explanations are included for each of the answers.

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Question 1

A confused client tries to get out of bed despite requests from staff to remain on bedrest. The nursing assistant knows that the nurse will most likely apply:

A
wrist restraints.
B
a vest restraint.
C
a bed alarm.
D
four point restraints.
Question 1 Explanation: 
The bed alarm is the least invasive and will keep the client safe. All restraints require a physician’s order.
Question 2

Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate food item for a 3-year-old patient?

A
Apple slices.
B
Sandwich cut up into bite-size pieces.
C
Pretzel sticks.
D
Hotdog cut up into bite-size pieces.
Question 2 Explanation: 
The hotdog cut up into bite-size pieces could easily plug the child’s airway and cause them to choke. The sandwich would most likely fall apart before this could happen.
Question 3

An elderly, unstable patient wants to use the bathroom by himself and is frustrated when the nursing assistant tells him to call her for assistance. “Leave me alone!” he says. “I want to go without telling you!” What is the nursing assistant’s best response?

A
“I’m sorry, sir, but that’s just not possible.”
B
“I’ll get you a urinal to use.”
C
“Do you want to fall?”
D
“All right. I guess we were just trying to be extra careful.”
Question 3 Explanation: 
Using a urinal is the best way to promote the patient’s independence while still maintaining safety.
Question 4

In preparing a client for a hot Sitz bath, the nurse assistant should check the temperature of the water. The ideal water temperature is:

A
Between 105°F and 120°F
B
Between 95°F and 110°F
C
Between 80°F and 93°F
D
Between 65°F and 80°F
Question 4 Explanation: 
The ideal temperature of the water for a hot Sitz bath is between 95°F and 110°F. Water that is too hot will burn the client, and water that is too cold will cause the muscles to tighten up rather than relax. A hot Sitz bath will provide relaxation and relieve muscle spasms, soften exudates, hasten the suppuration process, hasten healing (in cases of perianal surgeries), reduce congestion, and provide comfort in the perineal area.
Question 5

A nurse obtains an order from a physician to restrain a client by using a jacket restraint and delegates a nursing assistant to assist in the restraining of the client. Which of the following observations indicates inappropriate application of the restraint by the nursing assistant?

A
A safety knot in the restraint straps.
B
Restraint straps that are safely secured to the side rails.
C
Jacket restraint straps that do not tighten when force is applied against them.
D
Jacket restraint secured so that two fingers can slide easily between the restraint and the client’s skin.
Question 5 Explanation: 
The restraint straps should be secured to the bed frame and never to the side rail to avoid accidental injury in the event that the side rail is released. A half-bow or safety knot should be used for applying a restraint because it does not tighten when force is applied against it and allows quick and easy removal of the restraint in case of emergency. The jacket restraint should be secured, and one to two fingers should slide easily between the restraint and the client’s skin.
Question 6

A typical blood pressure around the upper arm should NOT be taken when the patient:

A
has IV catheters in both the left and right arms.
B
complains that “this is the fifth time today.”
C
has heart failure.
D
had lymph nodes removed around the axilla of the left arm.
Question 6 Explanation: 
If the patient has IV catheters in both arms, a blood pressure cuff will impede their intravenous flow.
Question 7

A nursing assistant enters a client’s room and finds a fire burning in a trashcan. The nursing assistant’s first action is to:

A
call the nurse for help.
B
remove the patient.
C
try to put out the fire.
D
pull the fire alarm.
Question 7 Explanation: 
The acronym “RACE” is used for fire situations- Rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish. First you must rescue the client to prevent harm.
Question 8

Before shaving a resident, the nursing assistant checks for which of the following items in the resident’s care plan?

A
Shaving instructions related to problems or issues clotting.
B
History of a heart condition.
C
Presence of the resident’s razor from home.
D
Any previous refusal of ADLs.
Question 8 Explanation: 
It is necessary to check the shaving instructions in the resident’s plan of care to be aware of any problems clotting and the necessity of using an electric razor as opposed to a traditional one.
Question 9

When assisting the resident to transfer from the bed to a chair, the nursing assistant knows it is necessary to do all of the following EXCEPT:

A
Assist the resident to put on a robe and non skid slippers.
B
Place the chair on the resident’s strong side.
C
Encourage the resident to pivot themselves with minimal assistance.
D
Place the bed in the lowest position and lock the wheels.
Question 9 Explanation: 
Residents should be fully assisted and supervised when turning in order to prevent falls.
Question 10

A client is receiving oxygen therapy via face mask. Which of the following is contraindicated for this client?

A
Eating his lunch.
B
Use of cotton bedclothes.
C
Shaving using an electric razor.
D
Talking with visitors.
Question 10 Explanation: 
A client who is on oxygen therapy should have safety measures implemented in order to prevent explosion. Use of electric razors or hair dryers while the oxygen is running is not allowed. Combing a client’s hair can also create a spark of electricity from his hair that could set off an explosion. The face mask can be removed if the client wishes to eat and converse with visitors. Use of cotton bedclothes is also encouraged to decrease static electricity.
Question 11

Which of the following diseases does not require airborne precautions?

A
Measles.
B
Tuberculosis.
C
MRSA.
D
Chickenpox.
Question 11 Explanation: 
MRSA is a disease transmitted by skin-to-skin contact. It does not require airborne or droplet precautions.
Question 12

The nursing assistant cares for a patient with hepatitis C. The nursing assistant knows that the patient could have come in contact with this disease in which of the following ways?

A
IV drug use.
B
Dirty toilet seat.
C
Dirty eating utensils.
D
Going barefoot.
Question 12 Explanation: 
IV drug use is one of the many ways that it is possible to contract the hepatitis C virus.
Question 13

When correctly washing hands, the nursing assistant should scrub hands thoroughly and completely for how long?

A
5 seconds.
B
10 seconds.
C
15 seconds.
D
20 seconds.
Question 13 Explanation: 
Most guidelines for handwashing (including the CDC) recommend washing hands for 20 seconds.
Question 14

What protective equipment should be worn when changing an incontinent patient?

A
Gloves and gown.
B
Mask and gown.
C
N-95 mask.
D
Gloves, gown, and a mask.
Question 14 Explanation: 
The nursing assistant should wear a gown and gloves at most as correct contact precautions.
Question 15

MRSA is an example of which of the following?

A
A bacterial strain that is easy to treat with antibiotics.
B
A mnemonic to remember how to act if there is a fire in the facility.
C
A resistant strain of bacteria that is difficult to treat with antibiotics.
D
A set of activity guidelines designed to keep residents safe.
Question 15 Explanation: 
MRSA stands for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus and is very resistant to most antibiotic treatments.
Question 16

What is the best way for a nursing assistant to prevent infection?

A
Apply an antiseptic hand rub before and after caring for residents.
B
Frequent handwashing.
C
Wear gloves when in contact with body fluids.
D
Use standard precautions when caring for residents.
Question 16 Explanation: 
Frequent handwashing is the best way to prevent infection without a doubt. The other measures are supportive.
Question 17

A client with an indwelling urinary catheter is ordered to ambulate twice daily. Before ambulating the client, the nursing assistant should:

A
raise the bag above the bladder level.
B
keep the bag below the bladder level.
C
have the patient cover the bag with a pillow sleeve.
D
ask the nurse to confirm this order.
Question 17 Explanation: 
Keeping the bag below the level of the cavity ensures that bacteria cannot migrate up from the bag and up into the bladder due to gravity.
Question 18

Which action is incorrect when flossing the client’s teeth?

A
Hold the floss between the middle fingers of each hand.
B
Make sure you also floss the back side of the very last tooth on the right, left, top, and bottom of the mouth.
C
Move the floss gently up and down between the teeth.
D
Use a new piece of floss for each tooth.
Question 18 Explanation: 
It is unnecessary to use a new piece of floss for each tooth. Break off an 18-inch of floss from the dispenser; this will do for all the teeth. Just move to a new section of floss after every second tooth is flossed. The other choices are correct steps in flossing.
Question 19

Which of the following is a key part of care when administering a bath to a resident?

A
Use cool water when bathing the patient to promote better circulation.
B
Clean the perinea area of a patient before assisting them to clean their face.
C
Perform all care for the resident in order to conserve their energy.
D
Allow participation in care to promote a sense of independence.
Question 19 Explanation: 
Allowing the resident to participate in care will raise their self esteem and allow autonomy. It is inappropriate to clean the perineal area before the face, or to use cool water rather than comfortably warm water.
Question 20

A nursing assistant cares for a resident. Which of the following skin care measures are correct?

A
The nursing assistant does not begin perineal care until a second staff member is present.
B
The nursing assistant applies talcum powder beneath the abdominal folds of the resident.
C
The nursing assistant applies a prescription ointment as ordered.
D
The nursing assistant notes a nonblanchable red area on the resident’s sacrum and reports it to the nurse.
Question 20 Explanation: 
It is the duty of the nursing assistant to report any red pressure spots on the resident to the nurse. The nursing assistant may not apply any prescription ointments. Talcum powder is not recommended. A second staff member is not needed for perineal care.
Question 21

Which of the following actions is correct when giving a client a bath?

A
Ensure any areas not being currently washed are covered by a sheet or towel.
B
Clean the perineal area by gently wiping with the washcloth from back to front.
C
Make the client give themselves their own bath, even if they perform it poorly.
D
Lotion the client’s feet after bathing and be sure to get in between the toes.
Question 21 Explanation: 
In order to maintain privacy and keep a client warm, it is important to cover areas that are not being bathed. When cleaning the perineal area, wipe front to back. Have the client assist with ADLs, but support them. Do not lotion between toes because it predisposes them to fungal infections.
Question 22

During a bath, the three most important things for the resident are:

A
Safety, security, and privacy.
B
Safety, warmth, and cleanliness.
C
Comfort, rest, and security.
D
Privacy, rest, and warmth.
Question 22 Explanation: 
Safety, security, and privacy are most important to the resident during a bed bath.
Question 23

The client asks the nursing assistant to assist her to cut her toenails. The nursing assistant knows this client has type 2 diabetes. Which of the following actions is best?

A
Report to the nurse that the client needs her toenails trimmed.
B
Check the chart for physician orders regarding nail trimming.
C
Check the client’s blood glucose before cutting her toe nails.
D
Retrieve a safety clipper and hand it to the client.
Question 23 Explanation: 
Diabetic clients often have special instructions regarding nail trimming. Check the chart for specific orders.
Question 24

Which is correct about ostomy care?

A
It is done under sterile technique.
B
It needs doctor’s order for changing of ostomy pouches.
C
Able clients can perform this procedure by themselves once they have been taught by the nurse.
D
The client can still defecate normally.
Question 24 Explanation: 
Able clients can perform this procedure by themselves once they have been taught by the nurse. Ostomy care is done aseptically (rules of cleanliness). It does not require a doctor’s order for changing the ostomy pouch. The collection bag must be changed when it is full or when the adhering seal is broken. A client with an ostomy will have a change in the normal bowel movement. The fecal matter will be collected through an appliance that is held over the stoma by a special adhesive or paste.
Question 25

Which of the following most addresses a client’s needs in regard to spirituality?

A
Provide the client with warm water, soap, and towels every morning.
B
Ask the client why he or she is of a particular faith.
C
Assist the client to the facility’s chapel every Sunday.
D
Treat any religious objects in the client’s room as if they were any other.
Question 25 Explanation: 
Support the client in their own individual religious needs. Treat any religious objects in their room with respect.
Question 26

Which of the following statements is true about Alzheimer’s residents?

A
Residents can never be reoriented because they will immediately forget it.
B
The resident may become confused, but hallucinations are never a part of Alzheimer’s.
C
It is important to maintain a routine to avoid confusion and overstimulation.
D
An increased appetite is common as Alzheimer’s progresses.
Question 26 Explanation: 
Maintaining a routine is incredibly important to Alzheimer’s patients. Hallucinations and a decrease in appetite are common. It is important to frequently reorient the patient.
Question 27

Which of the following aspects of care is important for a confused client?

A
Asking the client their name.
B
Reorienting the client frequently with clocks, calendars, and family mementos.
C
Keeping the client contained in their room.
D
Checking the client’s blood sugar every hour.
Question 27 Explanation: 
Reorienting the patient frequently is the most important aspect of care. Keeping the client locked in their room could agitate them, as could asking them their name (which they might not remember).
Question 28

The nursing assistant cares for a client who is extremely agitated. She yells, screams, and frequently tries to bite staff. The nursing assistant should:

A
use restraints to ensure the client’s safety.
B
speak calmly in an authoritative and neutral manner to the client.
C
use the television to distract the client.
D
provide care only when absolutely necessary.
Question 28 Explanation: 
Speaking calmly in a neutral manner can soothe an agitated client. Restraints are not appropriate for a client who is merely confused and can be placated.
Question 29

The nurse's assistant is correctly providing penile hygiene to an unconscious client if she:

A
uses warm water without soap.
B
dries all areas of the penis thoroughly.
C
washes from the base of the shaft to the tip.
D
avoids retracting the foreskin if not circumcised.
Question 29 Explanation: 
Careful drying is essential to avoid maceration of the penis. To decrease the risk for infection, wash the penis from the tip the base to reduce the risk for introducing microorganisms into the urethral meatus. Effective cleaning requires soap and thorough rinsing. It’s also essential to remove secretions that accumulate under the foreskin because they can lead to inflammation and are associated with the development of penile cancer. The foreskin of uncircumcised men must be retracted for cleaning, then replaced to prevent paraphimosis (capistration).
Question 30

When helping a client with left-sided weakness due to a CVA, the nursing assistant should position the client’s cane:

A
on the left side.
B
on the right side.
C
in front of the client.
D
away from the client.
Question 30 Explanation: 
The nursing assistant should place the cane on the side that is the strongest so that it can support the weak side.
Question 31

Which of the following pieces of assistive equipment would be most helpful in moving an immobile client from their bed to a chair?

A
Mechanical lift.
B
Draw sheet.
C
Gait belt.
D
Wrist restraints.
Question 31 Explanation: 
A mechanical lift should be used for immobile or NWB residents. A gait belt should never be used on an immobile resident to lift them and should be used on individuals who are FWB or PWB.
Question 32

The nursing assistant helps a patient who recently had a right-sided stroke to bathe. Which of the following describes the BEST method to support the patient’s independence?

A
Ask the patient what he wants to do.
B
Complete the entire bath for him to conserve his energy.
C
Encourage the patient to do the best he can to clean himself.
D
Allow the patient to perform as much of the bath as possible.
Question 32 Explanation: 
It is best for the patient to perform as much of the bath as possible, with the nursing assistant helping out when necessary.
Question 33

Clients with osteoarthritis may be on bed rest for prolonged periods. The nursing assistant is aware that she should:

A
encourage coughing and deep breathing and limit fluid intake.
B
provide only passive range of motion and decrease stimulation.
C
have the client lie as still as possible and give adequate massage.
D
turn the client every 2 hours and encourage coughing and deep breathing.
Question 33 Explanation: 
A bedridden client needs to be turned every 2 hours, have adequate nutrition, and cough and deep breathe to prevent potential complications of pressure ulcers and pneumonia. Massage can minimize the pain, but placing the client immobile is not the correct answer. Active and passive range of motion exercises and hydration are also appropriate answers to prevent contractures and promote skin integrity.
Question 34

Use of which of the following articles or types of clothing would help a client with osteoarthritis perform activities of daily living adequately?

A
Zippered clothing.
B
Tied shoes to promote stability.
C
Velcro clothing, slip-on shoes, and rubber grippers.
D
Buttoned clothing, slip-on shoes, and rubber grippers.
Question 34 Explanation: 
Velcro clothing, slip-on shoes, and rubber grippers make it easier for the client to dress and grip objects. Zippers, ties, and buttons may be difficult for the client to use.
Question 35

Which of the following would be considered an example of battery toward a patient?

A
The nursing assistant asks for permission before touching the resident to assist them to the bathroom.
B
The nursing assistant cleans the resident’s glasses.
C
The nursing assistant bathes the resident without his or her permission.
D
The nursing assistant keeps a resident isolated from others as a form of punishment.
Question 35 Explanation: 
Bathing a resident without his or her permission is an example of battery. Keeping a resident isolated from others as a form of punishment is an example of involuntary seclusion.
Question 36

The nursing assistant suspects that a resident in the facility is being abused due to multiple unexplained bruises, refusal to answer most questions, and refusal of ADLs. Which of the following actions should the nursing assistant take next?

A
Report the suspected situation to the nursing assistant’s immediate supervisor.
B
Notify the nurse assigned to care for the patient about the bruises.
C
Ask the resident repeatedly to identify an abuser.
D
Wait for more proof in order to identify the abuser.
Question 36 Explanation: 
Abuse in nursing facilities, or even suspicion of abuse, should be reported immediately to the nursing assistant’s supervisor. This requires more intervention than the nursing assistant’s scope of practice covers. Waiting or notifying the nurse only about bruises may delay getting the resident help.
Question 37

A client at the facility receives a new roommate. While the roommate is in the bathroom, the client leans toward the nurse and whispers, “Why is she here anyway? Is she sick?” The best response by the nursing assistant is:

A
“I’m afraid I can’t share that information with you.”
B
“Why don’t you ask her yourself?”
C
“She’s here for the same thing as you!”
D
“I’m not sure. Let me take a look at her chart.”
Question 37 Explanation: 
HIPAA requires you to keep client’s health information confidential. Period.
Question 38

Which of the following items is necessary in order to place a patient in restraints?

A
A physician’s order.
B
The charge nurse’s approval.
C
Physical restraints.
D
The hospital administrator’s approval.
Question 38 Explanation: 
The physician needs to order restraints before they can be legally applied. No one else can ask for restraints for a patient or it is considered battery.
Question 39

The Omnibus Budget and Reconciliation Act (OBRA) requires all facilities to do what for their clients?

A
Help residents write wills and choose power of attorneys.
B
Help residents reach their highest level of psychological and mental functioning.
C
Help residents perform ADLs and avoid neglect.
D
Help residents to transfer to other nursing homes if they want.
Question 39 Explanation: 
The OBRA act helps residents to achieve their highest points of physical, psychological, and mental functioning, as well as make choices about their lives.
Question 40

The term grievance refers to which aspect included in the Patient Bill of Rights?

A
Patients are not allowed to call doctors at home.
B
Patients have access to their health information at all times.
C
There is no lifetime monetary limit on essential care.
D
Patients have the right to file a complaint without fear or penalty.
Question 40 Explanation: 
The ability to file a grievance in a nursing home or other nursing care facility is considered a legal right as defined by the Patient Bill of Rights.
Question 41

The nursing assistant speaks with the nursing facility’s ombudsman. The role of this position is to:

A
make residents as happy as possible.
B
investigate residents’ complaints and bring them to the attention of the correct authorities.
C
assist residents to set up insurance and policy claims.
D
care for patients as if they were their own family.
Question 41 Explanation: 
The ombudsman’s job is to ensure that residents’ complaints are heard.
Question 42

Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication?

A
A whisper.
B
Mouthing words.
C
Hand gestures.
D
Minimizing facial expression.
Question 42 Explanation: 
Hand gestures are an example of nonverbal communication.
Question 43

Choose the observation that should be reported to the nurse STAT.

A
A pulse of 72.
B
32 respirations per minute.
C
Temperature of 98.9 degrees F.
D
Blood pressure of 102 over 75.
Question 43 Explanation: 
The number of respirations is slightly too fast to be considered normal and could be considered a respiratory problem.
Question 44

A nursing assistant takes the blood pressure of a client and finds it to be 82/43. The client reports feeling dizzy. The nursing assistant should:

A
take the client’s pulse next.
B
record the vital sign in the chart.
C
instruct the client to drink more fluids.
D
report the finding to the nurse.
Question 44 Explanation: 
It is very important to report a symptomatic low blood pressure to the nurse for further investigation.
Question 45

The nursing assistant should tell the nurse if the client with diabetes...

A
Reports numbness in their feet sometimes.
B
Does not touch their lunch tray.
C
Combs their hair without being prompted.
D
Decides not to finalize a will.
Question 45 Explanation: 
Someone with diabetes should always eat regular meals to keep their blood sugar relatively stable. Numbness in the feet is neuropathy, a common side effect of diabetes.
Question 46

Which of the following is an example of a pulse rate that should be reported to the nurse?

A
98.
B
82.
C
64.
D
45.
Question 46 Explanation: 
Any pulse outside the range of 60 to 100 should be reported immediately to the nurse for the resident’s safety.
Question 47

The nursing assistant cares for a diabetic client. Which of the following symptoms in this client should be immediately reported?

A
Refusal to eat dessert.
B
A cough.
C
A bowel movement.
D
Emesis.
Question 47 Explanation: 
Emesis (vomiting) in the diabetic client can indicate a potential for blood sugar imbalance. This should be reported to the nurse for further assessment.
Question 48

When caring for a patient, the nursing assistant notices that the patient is bleeding around an IV site. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take?

A
Report it to the patient’s nurse immediately.
B
Tell the nurse when she happens to see her.
C
Clamp the IV catheter and tell the nurse.
D
Report it to the nursing supervisor.
Question 48 Explanation: 
This should be reported to the patient’s nurse immediately.
Question 49

The nursing assistant takes the temperature of an elderly client and finds it to be 100.6 degrees F. The client reports having just taken a sip of hot tea. Which of the following actions is appropriate?

A
The nursing assistant records the temperature in the chart.
B
The nursing assistants waits at least fifteen minutes before retaking the temperature.
C
The nursing assistant scolds the client for not letting her know beforehand.
D
The nursing assistant takes an axillary temperature instead.
Question 49 Explanation: 
Waiting fifteen minutes ensures the temperature of the mouth will be more accurate. Axillary temperatures in the elderly are often not the best measure.
Question 50

Which of the following pulses will be most commonly used by a nursing assistant when acquiring vital signs?

A
Popliteal.
B
Brachial.
C
Femoral.
D
Radial.
Question 50 Explanation: 
The radial pulse is the most easily accessible location to take a pulse.
Question 51

A client eats a bagel and drinks one 16-ounce glass of orange juice. What is the correct way to record the amount of juice?

A
One hundred and twenty cc.
B
120 ml.
C
480 ml.
D
480 cc.
Question 51 Explanation: 
The abbreviation of “cc” is no longer appropriate in the medical field. Only ‘ml’ should be used. A 16-ounce glass is approximately 480 ml.
Question 52

One of the patients on the unit is on airborne precautions due to suspected tuberculosis. To rule out the disease, the doctor has ordered sputum specimens to be collected. What is the best daily time for the nursing assistant to collect the specimens?

A
After a meal.
B
Before a meal.
C
Last thing before the patient goes to sleep.
D
First thing in the morning.
Question 52 Explanation: 
The sputum produced upon awakening is the most concentrated sputum and will yield the most accurate result.
Question 53

What is the difference between Sims position and left lateral position?

A
In lateral position, the patient’s head is elevated to 15 degrees on two pillows.
B
In lateral position, the patient’s undermost arm is positioned laterally and parallel to the patient’s back.
C
In Sims position, the patient’s undermost arm is positioned laterally and parallel to the patient’s back.
D
In Sims position, a pillow is placed between the patient’s knees to prevent them from touching.
Question 53 Explanation: 
This correctly describes how Sims position is different than left lateral position. A pillow is placed between the knees in both positions listed.
Question 54

The nursing assistant knows that residents on bedrest must be turned every:

A
1 hour.
B
2 hours.
C
6 hours.
D
8 hours.
Question 54 Explanation: 
Residents on bedrest must be turned every 2 hours to maintain skin integrity.
Question 55

A resident is ordered to be in High Fowler position for each meal. Which of the following descriptions is the most accurate depiction of High Fowler position?

A
The patient’s bed is at a 30 degree angle with the patient slightly slumped over to the left.
B
The patient’s bed is at a 60 degree angle with the feet propped up.
C
The patient's bed is at a 90 degree angle and the patient is positioned sitting up.
D
The patient lies on their stomach for twenty minutes prior to eating.
Question 55 Explanation: 
High Fowlers is a description of the patient sitting straight up in bed, meaning the bed itself has to be at a 90 degree angle to support them.
Question 56

Which of the following is a correct aspect of making an occupied bed?

A
Place soiled linen on the floor until the bed has been remade with clean sheets.
B
Avoid raising the bed rails unless absolutely necessary.
C
Mitering the corners of the new sheet is no longer recommended.
D
Lower the bed to the lowest level when the procedure is complete.
Question 56 Explanation: 
Lowering the bed to the lowest level is important for safety. Mitering the corners of sheets is recommended, as is raising side rails. Never place soiled linens on the floor.
Question 57

The nursing assistant prepares to give a patient a bed bath. Before turning the patient to rub their back, the nursing assistant notices that he has an indwelling urinary catheter in place. Where should the nursing assistant secure the catheter to ensure it is not pulled during the bath?

A
To the bed sheet.
B
To the lateral aspect of the patient’s thigh.
C
To the medial aspect of the patient’s thigh.
D
To the bed.
Question 57 Explanation: 
Securing the catheter to the lateral aspect of the patient’s thigh ensures it cannot be painfully pulled during the bath.
Question 58

When making the patient’s bed, the nursing assistant knows it is most important to:

A
straighten the sheets to reduce wrinkle formation.
B
use linen that has only been in the client’s room.
C
inspect the sheets for softness.
D
change the pillow cover every four hours.
Question 58 Explanation: 
Wrinkles and creases in the sheets can contribute to bed sores.
Question 59

A patient with a respiratory illness complains of thick, sticky secretions that are hard to cough up. The nursing assistant knows to suggest which of the following?

A
Drink plenty of fluids.
B
Turn and cough every hour.
C
Go outside and breathe the fresh air.
D
Cough harder.
Question 59 Explanation: 
Drinking fluids will help to lubricate the secretions so that the patient can cough them up easier.
Question 60

A patient has a fever and describes feeling very uncomfortable. Which of the following recommendations is best for the nursing assistant to provide?

A
Administer Tylenol 500mg PO.
B
Give the patient a backrub.
C
Give the patient a cool washcloth to be placed on the forehead.
D
Suggest the patient sit outside in the fresh air.
Question 60 Explanation: 
A cool washcloth can make a patient with a fever feel better. The nursing assistant may not administer medications.
Question 61

A client has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and has orders by the doctor to apply elastic stockings. The nurse's assistant is correct in performing this when she:

A
Applies the stockings while the client is in bed.
B
Applies the stockings while the client is sitting on the chair.
C
Applies the stockings while the client is sitting on the bed and dangles her feet.
D
Applies the stockings while the client is standing.
Question 61 Explanation: 
Elastic stockings or anti-embolic stockings are applied before the client gets out of bed. Otherwise the legs can swell from sitting or standing. Stockings are hard to put on when the legs are swollen. The client lies in bed while they are off. This prevents the legs from swelling.
Question 62

To prevent circulatory impairment in an arm when applying an elastic bandage, which of the following methods is best?

A
Wrap the bandage around the arm loosely.
B
Apply the bandage while stretching it slightly.
C
Apply heavy pressure with each turn of the bandage.
D
Start applying the bandage at the upper arm and work toward the lower arm.
Question 62 Explanation: 
Stretching the bandage slightly maintains uniform tension on the bandage. Wrapping the bandage loosely wouldn’t secure the bandage on the arm. Using heavy pressure would cause circulatory impairment. Beginning the wrapping at the upper arm would cause uneven application of the bandage. For example, elastic stockings are applied distal to proximal to promote venous return.
Question 63

The range of motion term “abduction” means:

A
moving the extremity away from the body.
B
moving the extremity toward the body.
C
moving the extremity above the body.
D
moving the extremity below the body.
Question 63 Explanation: 
To abduct is to move away, to adduct is to move closer or toward.
Question 64

The nursing assistant knows that the responsibilities of his/her position do not include:

A
Helping a resident to bathe.
B
Keeping a resident’s room tidy.
C
Applying an ice pack as ordered.
D
Administering a medication.
Question 64 Explanation: 
Nursing assistants may not administer medications- it is not within their scope of practice. Only RNs, LPNs, and other properly licensed personnel may give medications.
Question 65

Which of the following procedures cannot be performed by a nursing assistant?

A
Reporting a soiled dressing to the nurse.
B
Performing oral care on an unconscious patient.
C
Assisting the client to the bathroom.
D
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter.
Question 65 Explanation: 
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter requires sterile technique, which is not a component of nursing assistant skills.
Question 66

A nursing assistant arrives at work. Three hours into the shift, she feels chilled and takes her temperature. The read-out is 101.0 degrees F. The correct action is to:

A
Continue working, but wear a mask.
B
Report herself to the nursing supervisor and be dismissed home.
C
Continue working, but wash hands every fifteen minutes.
D
Leave immediately for home.
Question 66 Explanation: 
As a nursing assistant, you can’t just leave your patients without transferring their care elsewhere. The nursing supervisor can assist with this process if you are too sick to do so yourself. A fever means that you are an infection risk to residents.
Question 67

The nursing assistant is helping a male patient to use the urinal. She pulls the curtain around the bed for privacy before saying:

A
“If you need any more assistance, please ring the bell.”
B
“If you do not fill it completely, I will empty it later.”
C
“Please ring me when you are finished and I will empty it for you.”
D
“Please let me know later how many mL.”
Question 67 Explanation: 
The nursing assistant cannot ask the patient to measure his own urine, or delay in emptying it. Once the patient is finished, he should ring the bell so that she can measure it and empty it herself.
Question 68

A patient says that her visitor is unable to come during visitor hours and asks if she could be accommodated. The nursing assistant:

A
reviews the issue with the charge nurse before answering.
B
says, “Of course! That would be fine.”
C
reviews the issue with the patient’s nurse before answering.
D
says, “I’m sorry, that’s not our policy here.”
Question 68 Explanation: 
It is appropriate to review this with the charge nurse of the unit before answering yes or no.
Question 69

The nursing assistant receives her assignment for the shift and notices that she does not have a nurse assigned to her group. What action should she take next?

A
Begin gathering medications she must give.
B
Loudly complain about the situation.
C
Offer to team up with another nursing assistant to give medications.
D
Alert the charge nurse to the situation.
Question 69 Explanation: 
Medications may not be given by a nursing assistant. Alert the charge nurse to ensure that there is a nurse provided for each client in the assignment.
Question 70

The nurse's aide was asked by the licensed nurse to change the non-sterile dressing of a client. Which of the following statements is best when pertaining to this situation?

A
Tactfully refuse the delegated task because you are limited in changing dressings on your own.
B
After the wound has been cleansed, apply clean dressings and tape completely around the edges of the bandage.
C
In cleansing the wound, start from the surrounding skin towards the wound in longitudinal strokes.
D
In changing a dressing, always note the color, odor, amount, and consistency of the drainage on the old dressing.
Question 70 Explanation: 
When changing a dressing, always note the color, odor, amount, and consistency of the drainage on the old dressing. Dressings that do not require the use of sterile technique or to apply medication to the wound will often be assigned to your care. Make sure that you follow the correct steps in doing the procedure, such as cleansing the wound and the skin using circular motions and starting from the clean areas to the dirty. The wound is considered clean and the skin dirty. Apply clean dressings afterwards. Hold all dressings by the corners as you apply them. Do not contaminate the center of the bandages. Tape the dressing in place, leaving the edges free. Do not tape completely around the edges of the bandage.
Question 71

A COPD client recently admitted to the floor needs constant oxygen therapy. When assisting this patient, the nursing assistant can:

A
turn the oxygen on and off.
B
start the oxygen.
C
decide what device to use.
D
keep the connecting tubing secure and free of kinks.
Question 71 Explanation: 
The job of the nursing assistant is to make sure there are no kinks in the tubing and to secure the connecting tubing in place. The other choices are all responsibilities of a physician.
Question 72

The nursing assistant knows that signs of hypoglycemia include which of the following?

A
Polyuria.
B
Hot and dry skin.
C
Sweating.
D
Tachycardia.
Question 72 Explanation: 
Sweating, as well as confusion and tremors, are signs of hypoglycemia.
Question 73

Diabetes is a disease of which primary body system?

A
Endocrine.
B
Musculoskeletal.
C
Respiratory.
D
Cardiac.
Question 73 Explanation: 
Diabetes is a disease process that occurs due to a disease of the endocrine system and subsequently affects all other systems.
Question 74

Which of the following disorders are said to be irreversible?

A
Emphysema.
B
Asthma.
C
Chicken pox.
D
Hypertension.
Question 74 Explanation: 
Emphysema is the only truly irreversible disease listed. Asthma may be “outgrown” after childhood, and chickenpox is an acute, short-lived illness. Hypertension may be “cured” with diet, exercise, and medication.
Question 75

Clients requiring oxygen therapy should be monitored for hypoxia. Early signs for hypoxia include:

A
Breathing comfortably only when sitting.
B
Restlessness, dizziness, and disorientation.
C
Cyanosis and increased pulse rate.
D
Increased temperature and decreased respiratory rate.
Question 75 Explanation: 
Hypoxia means that the cells do not have enough oxygen. It is a life-threatening condition. The brain is very sensitive to inadequate oxygen. Restlessness is an early sign, as are dizziness and disorientation. Hypoxia will have increased respiratory rate, increased pulse rate, but not increased temperature. Cyanosis, or bluish discoloration of the skin, is a late sign of hypoxia.
Question 76

Which of the following guidelines regarding residents who are hard of hearing would be considered correct?

A
Speak in a high-pitched voice to enhance understanding.
B
Speak clearly and slowly as you face the resident.
C
Write down words rather than speaking.
D
Encourage family participation to make sure they understand you.
Question 76 Explanation: 
Speaking slowly and clearly is the key to helping hard-of-hearing clients understand what you’re saying.
Question 77

Which of the following is the leading cause of accidental death in those 85 years of age and older?

A
Poisoning
B
Car accidents.
C
Falls.
D
Drowning.
Question 77 Explanation: 
Falls are the number one cause of accidental death in this age group. Work hard to prevent them!
Question 78

Elderly patients are prone to stomach aches and bloating. Which of the following foods are avoided since they are gas-forming and contribute to the said condition?

A
Prunes.
B
Cauliflower.
C
Colas and sodas.
D
Protein-rich foods.
Question 78 Explanation: 
Cauliflower is gas-forming. Other examples of gas-forming foods are beans, cabbage, radishes, and cucumbers.
Question 79

All of the following factors may interfere with elimination EXCEPT:

A
Aging.
B
Medications.
C
Family stress.
D
Infection.
Question 79 Explanation: 
Family stress does not typically interfere with elimination. Aging, medications, and infection do have a direct effect on elimination.
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